Eamonn O Brien
When one applies for a loan/mortgage, is the "note" signed first and lodged as an asset?
Then the man/woman return as the debtor to sign the contract?
I ask because people make the point that if the note is sold on by the bank then they are not owed anything by the man/woman... But are the note and the contract 2 separate arrangements? Does the contract stand regardless of whether or not the note was sold on?