Robert Cormier
I can't get my head around this. It leaped off the page at me as being so ludicrous as to be laughable. Am i missing something here? VI. Conclusion
[38] ..."The Royal Proclamation of George III contemplated licensing for purposes of CONDUCTING COMMERCE and DID NOT DEAL WITH the issues of sovereignty and JURISDICTION." Questions: Doesn't COMMERCE (by its very nature) itself dictate (deal with) the use of a specific JURISDICTION known as ADMIRALTY/COMMERCE? In other words, can commerce occur in any other jurisdiction other than admiralty? How can the court deny that it is engaging in commerce and that commerce does indeed "deal with" a (admiralty) JURISDICTION?