John Quicktree Muellers

Sep 07, 2013 8:25 PM
what about this http://www.un.org/en/documents/udhr/hr_law.shtml


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John Quicktree Muellers

Sep 07, 2013 8:25 PM
and this http://www.un.org/en/documents/udhr/


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Pete Daoust

Sep 07, 2013 8:30 PM
There is no HUMANS in court....Only applicants, persons and citizens... :(


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John Quicktree Muellers

Sep 07, 2013 8:31 PM
of course as a corporation can only deal with a corporation,,,,


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Pete Daoust

Sep 07, 2013 8:32 PM
No....APPLICANTS, PERSONS and CITIZENS.....and corporations....


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Pete Daoust

Sep 07, 2013 8:36 PM
a state has exclusive sovereignty over all persons, citizens or aliens, and all property, real or personal, within its own territory.� They deal with PERSONS, and these persons they deal with, has been created by the state, so therefor, these persons are considered INVENTORY sitting in the state's warehouse.....


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John Quicktree Muellers

Sep 07, 2013 8:38 PM
so which definition of person and citizen are you using?


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John Quicktree Muellers

Sep 07, 2013 8:38 PM
or should I say "they"


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Pete Daoust

Sep 07, 2013 8:45 PM
In THEIR bunkers, I have to play by THEIR rules, if of course, I am the APPLICANT....because I have to APPLY with the person I have in my pocket if I want to go there.....and the person I have in my pocket seems to be a TRUSTEE to their view......they even make you swear an AFFIDAVIT on that when you apply....


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Pete Daoust

Sep 07, 2013 8:48 PM
In that case, R. v. Jones was the APPLICANT, so he definitly admitted being a PERSON and/or a CITIZEN when he applied.....with or without knowing that a state has exclusive sovereignty over all persons, citizens or aliens, and all property, real or personal, within its own territory.�


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Derek Moran

Sep 08, 2013 12:57 AM
Operative-phrase- "...within its OWN territory".....theres a Maxim-of-law that says, all jurisdictions have their BOUNDARIES ;)


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Pete Daoust

Sep 08, 2013 12:59 AM
And when you APPLY in THEIR jurisdiction, well you're right in it ;)


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Robert Cormier

Sep 09, 2013 8:04 AM
I can't get my head around this. It leaped off the page at me as being so ludicrous as to be laughable. Am i missing something here? VI. Conclusion [38] ..."The Royal Proclamation of George III contemplated licensing for purposes of CONDUCTING COMMERCE and DID NOT DEAL WITH the issues of sovereignty and JURISDICTION." Questions: Doesn't COMMERCE (by its very nature) itself dictate (deal with) the use of a specific JURISDICTION known as ADMIRALTY/COMMERCE? In other words, can commerce occur in any other jurisdiction other than admiralty? How can the court deny that it is engaging in commerce and that commerce does indeed "deal with" a (admiralty) JURISDICTION?


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Derek Moran

Sep 20, 2013 4:42 AM
As Kate of Gaia drives home- "Until your ship-comes-to-shore, you are lost-at-sea"


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